40 Yrs old with rash on his back

40 year old white man with no significant past medical history presents to the office concerned about a non-pruritic rash on his back that has been progressively spreading. He takes no medicines and acknowledges past use of intravenous drugs. His exam findings are normal except for the rash.

Which of the following statements is correct?

A. History of STD’s should be elicited, since the rash resembles one seen in secondary syphilis
B. This appears to be a mild case of pityriasis rosea, which requires no treatment
C. Initiate treatment with oral Terbinafine
D. The causative organism is saprophytic yeast, a part of the normal skin flora, which produces azelaic acid to inhibit skin pigmentation- CORRECT ANSWER.
E. Patient has tinea corporis/ ring-worm infection, which will respond well to Griseofulvin